Question special

In the surveillance and follow-up section it states that continuation of anticoagulation or aspirin was left at the discretion of the treating physician. Later in the paper there is mention of 30-day follow-up of symptomatic recurrent VTE being lowest in the 20mg rivaroxaban group vs the aspirin group (0.2% vs 0.6%). Is there a breakdown of how each of these groups were treated after the study ended? These results might imply a lasting effect of DOAC therapy on reducing recurrent VTE risk (even after treatment was completed), which would be a super interesting idea, OR, if the majority of patients were continued on their original therapy, would simply imply the ongoing benefit of this medication. However, what if a patient was taking high-dose rivaroxaban during the study, then the treating physician subsequently placed the patient on aspirin? Would be great to know more about this, as this might help me better interpret the 30-day follow-up results.