Question special

Results from the CTT statin meta-analyses show that the greater the absolute reduction in LDL-c that is achieved, the greater the reduction in CVD risk. As expected in FOURIER, those with the highest baseline LDL-c also had the greatest reduction in LDL-c (e.g. 2.0mmol/L reduction in the highest quartile vs. 1.1mmol/L reduction in the lowest quartile). Yet there is not even a hint that those with the highest LDL-c obtained greater CVD benefit than those with the lowest LDL-c. While there are important caveats when interpreting subgroups, this is one subgroup analysis where we might have expected to see something show up. Does this simply reflect lack of power for this kind of analysis or are there alternative explanations?