Thank you to the authors for being part of this online discussion. Rawshani and his colleagues have demonstrated that mortality and the incidence of cardiovascular outcomes declined substantially among persons with diabetes, although fatal outcomes declined less among those with type 2 diabetes than among controls. How would you explain the fact that the event rate reduction for mortality was similar in type 1 versus control but greater in controls compared to type 2 diabetes? Would you attribute it to the difference in age, pathophysiology and duration of disease between both type 1 and type 2 cohorts or to other confounding risk factors?
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