Question special

Could you expand on why a two sided alpha (instead of a one sided alpha) was used? Was this because of the plan to also assess for superiority or was there other reasons?

Was there any prior data showing thrombectomy alone could be superior that prompted also considering this hypothesis? It is mentioned that prior studies showed either no differences or superiority of combined therapy.

Finally, was there any pre-established OR interval for the primary outcome that would have prompted a formal analysis for superiority?

Thank you.