Other observational studies that compared combined therapy vs. thrombectomy alone looked at a modified Rankin score and showed benefit and a difference in mortality with combined therapy.
-How do your results contrast to these previous findings?
-Why was a modified Rankin score the primary outcome instead of mortality?
-Did the logistics of paying for the alteplase beforehand and timing of administration impact your results?
-Are your results applicable to the practice of alteplase first and transfer to a larger center for mechanical thrombectomy?
Thank you for your time!
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