Question special

Based on Table 1, it looks like almost one-third of patients (not unexpected) in each group had "an asymmetric weakness in motor response", which I would interpret as weakness in dorsal or plantar flexion of varying degrees.

I didn't see any data presented on recovery of motor function. I understand that this is also largely driven by continued physical therapy and rehab, however this is a question that we often get from patients and it would be useful info to know for counseling.

Based on Figure 2, there is clear immediate separation of leg and back pain scores; ODI and SF-36 are more clearly separated at 3 months. Ultimately, what drives this improvement in the secondary outcomes? is it the pain, the numbness/tingling, or motor weakness?